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The Trinity? |
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This article was written for those people out there that demand a particular sounded out name for salvation.
According to scripture when he was crucified there were signs posted behind him written in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew.
Luke 23:38 And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, This is the King of the Jews. Matt 27:37 And set up over his head his accusation written, This is Iesous the King of the Jews. Mark 15:26 And the superscription of his accusation was written over, The King of the Jews. John 19:19 And Pilate wrote a title, and put [it] on the cross. And the writing was, Iesous of Nazareth the King of the Jews. John 19:20 This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Iesous was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, [and] Greek, [and] Latin.
Two Apostles have the name written on the sign the other two Apostles didn't mention the name other than it read "King of the Jews".
The “ous” and the “us” ending in the Greek name “Iesous” and the Latin name “Iesus,” denote the masculine singular gender in Greek and Latin. Only the letters “Ies” Iesus (Latin) and "Ies" in Iesous (Greek) name has any relationship to the Hebrew name Yahshua for the letters “us” and “ous” denote gender.
Iesous Greek Letters:
Iota/Eta/Sigma/Omicron/Upsilon/Sigma = ους
Greek has no “Sh” sound as in Yahshua's Hebrew name. To denote this “Sh” Hebrew sound in the Greek, the letter “Sigma” is used. The vast majority of the time his name in Greek appears without the final sigma because its not really part of his name.
Here is a sample of what you would find in the Greek written texts. Matt 1:1
Here is a sample of what you would find in the Latin written texts. Matt 1:1 liber generationis Iesu Christi filii David filii Abraham (Latin Vulgate)
I've read an argument that because the Greek scriptures were written in Greek that the use of this Hebrew name is incorrect. Let’s clear up a very obvious issue here. Was not the command to first take this message of Christ’s resurrection to the Jews then later to the gentiles?
Think about this, would they be knocking on a Hebrews door speaking Greek to them to tell them of these miracles? These gospels were written in Greek, but much later after the events. The only time all 3 versions of his name were written at that time were by Pilate when he made the signs for all to view. It was when the Apostle Paul came on the scene that he began to spread this message to the gentiles who spoke Latin and Greek. Therefore the Hebrew name would have been used until it was time to bring it to pen and paper. I’m sure there were many Jews who knew several languages, but your talking about the very well educated ones. The vast majority of people even today still only know one language.
Would a Hebrew come to your door and say Iesous or Iesus (a clearly Greek or Latin name) is their messiah? I can see the head scratching now just trying to picture them speaking this absurdity. Hebrews are given Hebrew names not Greek and Latin. When the message went to the gentiles it was then the name had to be transliterated for all to understand and from this point the error occurs.
Transliteration is not the same as translation. Transliteration tries to echo the original sound of a name from a different language so that when it slides into the new language it will be recognizable to the readers and those that hear it.
Translation is more like this example : "Cat" is an actual thing and we have different words to represent that name for "Cat" in another language.
You can't do this with names of persons however without changing the meaning completly. The Hebrew word for "Cat" is "Chet/Tav/Vav/Lamed" pronounced "Ha-tool" This works fine because your name for "Cat" does not orginate from either language so we use our own words that mean the same thing. Thus nothing is lost in the translation. We can both point to something that looks like a cat and we will both know what a cat is.
He went by the name ישוע pronounced Yahshua. Now obviously the Latin and Greek signs would be transliterated to something along the lines of what his name sounded like in his language.
Here are some examples of names that echo what they were in Hebrew. In fact all the Hebrew names come over very close to what they once were EXCEPT ONE…
Everyone’s name made it over from Hebrew except this one. This is what the name Jesus would look like in Hebrew. (Reverse engineered)
This is so you can see the obvious change and no related letters. You can’t have a name such as “Jack” in English and transliterate that to “Bob” in German or any other language. They use their letters to sound out what it would of sounded like, not make up an entirely new name. People would read these signs and the names wouldn’t even sound the same. People would be walking around wondering how this man is being charged with a crime and being crucified yet has two or more different names depending on your language.
For a deeper understanding on the point I’m trying to make read this article link. http://www.ynca.com/Mini%20Studies/mistaken_j.htm http://www.plim.org/JesusOrigin.htm
There are also those that use the name Jehovah for the Hebrew name of God. There will be always slight variations of the sounding out of the names, but to take “Yahweh” and pronounce it “Jehovah” is a complete change over.
Here is where most bibles still show the name of God. Although most render it as Jehovah or The Lord.
Psalms 83:18 (Hebrew Tanakh places this verse at 19) That [men] may know that thou, whose name alone [is] Yahweh, [art] the most high over all the earth.
Here is a link that also explains this in further detail. The best way to show their ignorance is the use of the Gimmel sound for the Yud as in "J" rather than "Y" also the Hebrew letter "Vav" produced a "Wha" sound before the modern variation of "V". Therefore the name sounds out using these Hebrew letters "Yud-Heh-Wha-Heh"
http://www.familybible.org/Teaching/Messianic/Jehovah.htm
There wasn’t a way in Hebrew or Greek to say Jesus nor Jehovah as the letter “J” didn’t come to be until centuries later. The closest sound to “J” in the Hebrew language is the letter “Gimmel”, but notice the Gimmel is not used in either of the names. If it were me I’d go back to what they originally had it as or a very close pronunciation of the original word and not completely change the unique sound it makes when rolling off the tongue.
The Greek Septuagint came before the New Testament. Therefore they were already adapting some words from Hebrew incorrectly. The most shameful of course is when they took the Tetragrammaton of Yahweh יהוה and translated it as “Kurios” κυριος, they also use “Theos” θεος. Not even an attempt to transliterate the Almighty’s divine name. Transliterating the name of YHWH into Greek is almost impossible. This is because certain Hebrew letters/sounds do not occur in Greek. Among these are the letters Yud י; Heh ה and Vav ו the very 3 letters which make up the Divine name in Hebrew. When transliterating these letters into Greek substitutions are made.
The Hebrew letter Yud י is transliterated into Greek as Iota
Immanu-el - עמנו אל
The prophecy of him to come calls him “Immanu-el” from Isaiah 7:14. The oddity is that he is never called by this name, so therefore this seems to be more of an announcement with symbolism of what his name will fully come to be such as Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.
He will sit on the Right hand of God, that is why he is the Mighty God and not the Almighty. Perhaps this will be his final name in the end of things because things aren’t quite wrapped up on Earth yet.
Immanu-el - עמנו אל -Translated means, "Elohim with us." (Elohim - Title such as God, short version is El)
Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman is with child, and she will bear a son, and shall call his name Immanu-El. Isaiah 9:6 states that His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Then the Bible books of Matthew and Luke reveal his name as “Yahshua” Matt 1:25 “And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Yahshua.” Luke 1:31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Yahshua. Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Yahshua Messiah, the Son of God;
Yah (Yud/Heh) – Short form of "Yahweh" Example: Psalms 68:4 “HalleluYah” which means “Praise Yahweh”
Mt.1:21 "For he shall save his people from their sins" Yahshua when broken down into Hebrew will reveal the meaning of "Yahweh saves" or "Yahweh is salvation"
We as humans can’t even begin to imagine what its like in Heaven or what language they speak, they might very well have different names up there, but the ones they gave us to recognize them from the rest are in the scriptures for us to use and call on them. However doing so will fullfill these prophecies.
Isaiah 52:6 Therefore My people shall know My name; Therefore they shall know in that day That I am He who speaks: `Behold, it is I.' "
Zech 13:7 "Awake, O sword, against My Shepherd, Against the Man who is My Companion," Says Yahweh of hosts. "Strike the Shepherd, And the sheep will be scattered; Then I will turn My hand against the little ones. 8 And it shall come to pass in all the land," Says Yahweh, "That two-thirds in it shall be cut off and die, But one- third shall be left in it: 9 I will bring the [one]-third through the fire, Will refine them as silver is refined, And test them as gold is tested. They will call on My name, And I will answer them. I will say, `This [is] My people'; And each one will say, `Yahweh is my Elohim.' "
Rev 14:1 Then I looked, and behold, a Lamb standing on Mount Zion, and with Him one hundred [and] forty-four thousand, having His Father's name written on their foreheads.
I have chosen this bible as it restores the Hebrew names throughout the bible. http://www.isr-messianic.org/pubs/the_scriptures.shtml
Rather then them arguing if it’s Yahveh or Yahweh יהוה they left it as its Hebrew form to avoid argument. There is very little difference in those two pronouncements. If you read this link however you will see why I choose Yahweh for the correct reading as the “Vav” in Hebrew used to create a “Wha” sound more than “V”.
Aside from all of this the Hebrew "Vav" is the cousin of the Arabic "Waw". http://www.yrm.org/yahveh-yahweh.htm
They also removed the name Jesus as that was created during the creation of the King James translation of the Greek rendering of the name and replaced it with the Hebrew name Yahshua ישוע Again they left it as Hebrew as there is also the argument in the community of Yahshua or Yehshua. There is no “a” or “e” as there are no vowels but rather vowel marks. Again I think this is a petty difference seeing they both echo very closely the correct rendering of the name.
If I reference an online bible it’s purely out of convenience that I use it and not because I accept the replaced words of “Lord” and so forth.
According to scripture, God has chosen to rename people for different reasons such as Abram being changed to Abraham as his new name would mean Father of many Nations. Gen 17:5 Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee. I however see nothing in scripture that says he changed his name from what was given since he knew what he wanted it to be before he sent him to Earth. This pronouncement of “J” was clearly medieval in origin and not the spoken sound by the first century Christians. Therefore you can conclude that the ministry they did was proclaiming the name without the use of the “J” for either of these names. People hate to be wrong and will most likely say this is surely the Anti-Christ mentality suggesting this name is no more than mistranslation. History clearly shows this name developed on its own from the ignorance of the translators when it was being translated from the Greek and Hebrew writings. So we see there are two clearly different names. The first being Yahweh and the other Yahshua. This is my first point of separating the two from being the same being. This was more a fact finding mission then anything else. According to my research this is how it was and is. I certainly am not telling you to use this or that, just pointing you to other conclusions so you can freely come to your own conclusions.
Son or God?
Let’s now use some of the scriptures to see what his disciples and Yahshua himself claimed he was. "Jesus" took Peter, James, and his brother up to the mountain to show them who he was.
Mat 17:5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him. Mark 9:7 And there was a cloud that overshadowed them: and a voice came out of the cloud, saying, This is my beloved Son: hear him. 2Pe 1:17 For he received from God the Father honour and glory, when there came such a voice to him from the excellent glory, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
When "Jesus" was Baptized in the Jordan
Matt 3:16 And Yahshua, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: Matt 3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Mark 1:10 And straightway coming up out of the water, he saw the heavens opened, and the Spirit like a dove descending upon him: Mark 1:11 And there came a voice from heaven, [saying], Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. John 14:28 Remember what I told you: I am going away, but I will come back to you again. If you really love me, you will be very happy for me, because now I can go to the Father, who is greater than I am.
Now reading this how can you conclude that there is only one thing here? Clearly we have “the Dove” representing Yahweh’s spirit, we have “Yahshua” being baptized, and the we have the voice from Heaven saying “This is my son”.
What about that verse " the Father and He are One"?
John 10:30 I and [my] Father are one. John 17:11 And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thy own name those whom thou hast given to me, that they may be one, as we [are]. One here means no division in purpose or plan. They are not implying they are fused together as one entity. Also you see the Holy Spirit doesn’t make an appearance in that verse. If they are all the same then it would of mentioned that as being part of the one entity. “that they may be one, as we [are].” – does this mean when we accept his message we fuse together as one? No it means we’re all on the same page. Gen 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh. Well wouldn't that be a sight to see? I guess we really know what this means don't we, and you can take all the other references of being One and apply the same meaning.
Here's another popular verse people love to use. John 14:9 Yahshua replied, "Philip, don't you even yet know who I am, even after all the time I have been with you? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father! So why are you asking to see him? Ever heard of the saying "He's a chip off the old block?" Thats exactly what he means by that verse. John 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.
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